ETEA MDCAT Model Self Assessments Test MCQs

  1. Ovulation occurs on ___ day of the normal menstrual cycle.
    a. 5th
    b. 14th
    c. 24th
    d. 28th
    Answer: a
  2. The cell of the testis which produce testosterone are:
    a. Sertoli cells
    b. Leydig cells
    c. Spermatogonia
    d. None of the above
    Answer: b
  3. The ratio of homozygous and heterozygous ratios of offspring in a monohybrid cross is:
    a. 1/4
    b. 1/2
    c. 3/4
    d. All are heterozygous
    Answer: a
  4. A monohybrid cross will results in ___ phenotypically dominant individuals.
    a. 1/4
    b. 1/2
    c. 3/4
    d. 1/3
    Answer: c
  5. A vestigial winged drosophila is when crossed with heterozygous one then one of the following is true:
    a. 1/4 vestigial and 3/4 wild
    b. 1/2 wild and 1/2 vestigial
    c. 3/4 vestigial and 1/4 wild
    d. None of these
    Answer: a
  6. If two heterozygous fruit flies for vestigial wings are crossed together which one of the following is true:
    a. 1/4 wild and 3/4 vestigial
    b. 1/2 wild and 1/2 vestigial
    c. 3/4 wild and 1/4 vestigial
    d. All are wild type
    Answer: a
  7. A pea plant heterozygous for pod colour is when self-pollinated which one of the following is true for green colour pod:
    a. 1/2
    b. 1/4
    c. 3/4
    d. All
    Answer: b
  8. If pea plants heterozygous for flower colours are crossed, what will be the probability of the offsprings to be homozygous recessive:
    a. 1/2
    b. 3/4
    c. 1/4
    d. Zero
    Answer: c
  9. A gene which has five alleles would have how many genotypes:
    a. 6
    b. 9
    c. 15
    d. 25
    Answer: c
  10. How many phenotypes are possible for human ABO blood groups:
    a. 4
    b. 6
    c. 8
    d. 12
    Answer: a
  11. In the absence of Bombay phenotypes, if one member of the couple is of O blood group and the other is A blood group which one of the following not true for the off springs:
    a. A blood group
    b. B blood group
    c. O blood group
    d. None of these
    Answer: c
  12. The genes for AB antigen are present on chromosome no 9 while the gene for H-substance is present on chromosome no:
    a. 9
    b. 11
    c. 19
    d. Sex chromosomes
    Answer: c
  13. If an individual is I^A and h which one of the following is true for his/her blood group:
    a. AB
    b. A
    c. B
    d. O
    Answer: b
  14. A person with blood group B:
    a. Cannot by a father of a child with O blood group
    b. Cannot by a father of a child with A blood group
    c. Cannot be a father of a child with an AB group
    d. All of the above statements are correct
    Answer: a
  15. Which one of the followings would be potentially dangerous situation?
    a. Transfusion of one unit of O negative blood to B positive recipient
    b. An Rh negative mother who is bearing her first Rh positive child
    c. An Rh positive mother who is bearing her first Rh negative child
    d. None of the above
    Answer: a
  16. Blood transfusion of Rh negative mother who is bearing her first Rh positive child:
    a. Positive child
    b. Negative child
    c. Both A & B
    d. None of the above
    Answer: a
  17. Blood transfusion of Rh positive mother who is bearing her first Rh negative child:
    a. Positive child
    b. Negative child
    c. Both A & B
    d. None of the above
    Answer: b
  18. Inhibit hormone is produced by:
    a. Hypothalamus
    b. Ovary
    c. Sertoli cells
    d. Spermatogonia
    Answer: a
  19. Sertoli cells:
    a. Graafian follicle
    b. Corpus luteum
    c. Corpus callosum
    d. Sertoli cells
    Answer: d
  20. The muscular layer of the uterus is:
    a. Perimetrium
    b. Endometrium
    c. Myometrium
    d. All of the above
    Answer: c
  21. The primary oocytes begins first meiotic division but arrest it in late:
    a. Prophase-I
    b. Metaphase-I
    c. Anaphase-I
    d. Telophase-I
    Answer: a
  22. The female total capacity of egg is determine by the time of:
    a. Birth
    b. Puberty
    c. Menopause
    d. Pregnancy
    Answer: a
  23. Larynx is located between the lower surface of skull and:
    a. Cricoid cartilage
    b. T3
    c. Larger and shorter
    d. Smaller and longer
    Answer: a
  24. The left bronchus as compared to right bronchus is:
    a. Larger and shorter
    b. Larger and longer
    c. Smaller and longer
    d. Smaller and shorter
    Answer: c
  25. The function of surfactant in the alveoli of human lungs is:
    a. Increase surface tension
    b. Prevent alveolus collapsing
    c. Microbial activity
    d. All of the above
    Answer: b
  26. Microbial activity doubled when O₂ concentration falls about:
    a. 1%
    b. 2%
    c. 5%
    d. 20%
    Answer: b
  27. If 19.4 ml of O₂ is carried by 100 ml of blood then blood is how much saturated:
    a. 20% saturated
    b. 75% saturated
    c. 97% saturated
    d. 100% saturated
    Answer: c
  28. How much O₂ is left in tissues by plasma present in 100 ml blood?
    a. 0.12 ml
    b. 0.17 ml
    c. 0.29 ml
    d. 0.30 ml
    Answer: a
  29. Which one is responsible for oxyhaemoglobin formation:
    a. High PO₂
    b. Low PCO₂
    c. Low pH
    d. All of these
    Answer: a
  30. The lowest PO₂ is found in:
    a. Expired air
    b. Venous blood
    c. Alveolar air
    d. True for cartilage
    Answer: b
  31. Which one of the following division of Peripheral Nervous System prepares the body in stress?
    a. Sympathetic
    b. Parasympathetic
    c. Both A and B
    d. None of the above
    Answer: a
  32. How many cranial nerves are present in Reptiles, Birds and Mammals:
    a. 10
    b. 20
    c. 24
    d. 31
    Answer: a
  33. The secretion of growth hormone is under the control of:
    a. Thalamus
    b. Amygdala
    c. Cerebrum
    d. Hypothalamus
    Answer: d
  34. The release of ovum and the secretion of estrogens is stimulated by:
    a. LH
    b. FSH
    c. Prolactin
    d. LTH
    Answer: a
  35. A change in gene frequencies of small population suddenly by chance is known as:
    a. Natural selection
    b. Genetic recombination
    c. Mutation
    d. Genetic drift
    Answer: d
  36. Homologous organs provide evidence for:
    a. Divergent evolution
    b. Convergent evolution
    c. Somatic variation
    d. Genetic drift
    Answer: a
  37. The remote ancestor of the present day horse is:
    a. Dawn horse
    b. Plihippus
    c. Miohippus
    d. Merychippus
    Answer: a
  38. A lizard in his ontogeny will recapitulates the similarities with:
    a. Fish and amphibian
    b. Fishes only
    c. Fishes and birds
    d. Amphibians only
    Answer: a
  39. F/m is unit of:
    a. permittivity
    b. relative permittivity
    c. capacitance
    d. potential
    Answer: c
  40. There are two charges 1 μc and 5 μc, the ratio of forces acting on them will be:
    a. 1:25
    b. 1:5
    c. 1:1
    d. 5:1
    Answer: c
  41. The force between two charges separated by a distance 3 cm is 12 dyne, if the separation becomes 6cm than the force will be?
    a. 6 dyne
    b. 12 dyne
    c. 3 dyne
    d. 24 dyne
    Answer: c
  42. (a temperature coefficient value is negative for which of the following
    a. Ge
    b. Fe
    c. Cu
    d. All
    Answer: a
  43. Gaussian surface is:
    a. real
    b. imaginary
    c. 1-D
    d. 0-D
    Answer: b
  44. Ampere-hour is a unit of:
    a. Current
    b. Time
    c. Quantity of charge
    d. Power
    Answer: c
  45. A wire of resistance 8Ω is bends in to a circle the resistance across its diameter will be:
    a. 2Ω
    b. 4Ω
    c. 8Ω
    d. 16Ω
    Answer: b
  46. The unchanged product of mass, speed and wavelength is always equal to?
    a. Momentum
    b. Energy
    c. Plank-constant
    d. None
    Answer: c
  47. For step-up transformer, if the number of turns in primary coil is N, the possible turns in secondary is:
    a. N
    b. N/2
    c. 2N
    d. All are possible
    Answer: c
  48. The peak value of emf generated by generator is?
    a. N₀AB
    b. NωAB
    c. AB/N₀
    d. AN/Bω
    Answer: b
  49. A step-up transformer is of Np = 2N, if the input signal is (140 volt, 50Hz), then output will be:
    a. 140V, 50Hz
    b. 280V, 100Hz
    c. 140V, 100Hz
    d. 280V, 50Hz
    Answer: d
  50. Which of the following propagates at the same speed as velocity of light?
    a. Heat waves
    b. Sound waves
    c. Shock waves
    d. B-particles
    Answer: c
  51. What is the SI unit of permeability?
    a. Wb/Am
    b. Am/Wb
    c. A/Wb m
    d. A/mWb
    Answer: a
  52. Magnetic flux density is equal to:
    a. B
    b. BA
    c. B φ
    d. φ/B
    Answer: a
  53. The complete mathematical force on a moving charge in magnetic field is?
    a. q(VB)
    b. q(BxV)
    c. q(VxB)
    d. None
    Answer: c
  54. A bulb of resistance 10Ω operated by 10 volt, the power consumed will be?
    a. 10 Watts
    b. 0 watts
    c. 100 watts
    d. 1watt
    Answer: a
  55. The most electronegative element in 3rd period is:
    a. Na
    b. P
    c. S
    d. Cl
    Answer: d
  56. In the reaction, 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂ Na is:
    a. Reducing agent
    b. Oxidizing agent
    Answer: a
  57. The type of hybridization in [Pt (NH₃)₂Cl₂]⁺²:
    a. SP³
    b. SP²
    c. dsp²
    d. None
    Answer: c
  58. All of the following are alicyclic except:
    a. Cyclohexane
    b. Cyclohexene
    c. Cyclohexyne
    d. Pyridine
    Answer: d
  59. All of the following are inorganic except:
    a. Na₂CO₃
    b. NaCN
    c. NaOCN
    d. None
    Answer: d
  60. Which one is ester?
    a. CH₃COOH₃
    b. CH₃COOCH₃
    c. CH₃COCH₃
    d. CH₃COOH
    Answer: b
  61. Urea belongs to:
    a. Amide
    b. Ester
    c. Amine
    d. Imine
    Answer: a
  62. 1-Butyne and 2-Butyne can be distinguished by:
    a. Tollen test
    b. Silver mirror test
    c. Both A and B
    d. None
    Answer: c
  63. Which one is acidic?
    a. Ethyne
    b. Acetylene
    c. Propyne
    d. All of them
    Answer: d
  64. In sulphonation of benzene the electrophile is:
    a. SO₃
    b. SO₂H
    c. SO₂
    d. All
    Answer: a
  65. Which one cannot undergo friedal craft alkylation?
    a. Phenol
    b. Benzene
    c. Toluene
    d. Aniline
    Answer: d
  66. Which one is aromatic?
    a. Cyclo propene
    b. Cyclohexene
    c. Cyclpropenylcation
    d. All
    Answer: c
  67. All of the following are ring activator except:
    a. -OH
    b. -NH₂
    c. -R
    d. -Cl
    Answer: d
  68. All of the following are ring deactivator except:
    a. -NO₂
    b. -COOH
    c. -CN
    d. -R
    Answer: d
  69. Which one is thermally more unstable?
    a. Alkene
    b. Alkynes
    c. Alkane
    d. All have same thermal stability
    Answer: b
  70. Ethane and ethene can be distinguished by:
    a. Bromine water test
    b. Baeyer test
    c. Silver mirror test
    d. Both A and B
    Answer: d
  71. The most reactive alkyl halide:
    a. R-I
    b. R-Cl
    c. R-F
    d. R-Br
    Answer: a
  72. In which one partial racemization occurs?
    a. SN1
    b. SN2
    c. E1
    d. E2
    Answer: a
  73. 100% inversion is in:
    a. SN1
    b. SN2
    c. E1
    d. E2
    Answer: b
  74. The type of hybridization in [Ag (NH₃)₂]⁺:
    a. SP³
    b. SP²
    c. dsp²
    d. None
    Answer: b
  75. 50% retention and 50% inversion occur in:
    a. SN1
    b. SN2
    c. E1
    d. E2
    Answer: a
  76. The intermediate formation occurs in:
    a. SN1
    b. SN2
    c. E1
    d. Both A and c
    Answer: a
  77. In which mechanism transition state occurs?
    a. SN2
    b. E2
    c. Both
    d. None
    Answer: c
  78. Considering SN, the correct reactivity order is:
    a. 1° > 2° > 3°
    b. 1° > 3° > 2°
    c. 3° > 2° > 1°
    d. None
    Answer: a
  79. Considering SN, the correct reactivity order is:
    a. 1° > 2° > 3°
    b. 1° > 3° > 2°
    c. 3° > 2° > 1°
    d. None
    Answer: c
  80. In the reaction CH₃Br + OH⁻ → CH₂ = CH₂ + H₂O + Br⁻ OH⁻ is:
    a. Nucleophile
    b. Base
    c. Both
    d. None
    Answer: c
  81. Which one is grain sprit?
    a. Ethanol
    b. Methanol
    c. Glycol
    d. Glycerine
    Answer: a
  82. Which one is alcohol?
    a. Cyclo hexanol
    b. Benzyl alcohol
    c. CH₂ – CH₂ – OH
    d. All
    Answer: d
  83. Which one is aliphatic alcohol?
    a. CH₃, OH
    b. cyclopropanol
    c. cyclo hexanol
    d. All of them
    Answer: a
  84. Which one is aromatic only:
    a. Phenol
    b. Alcohol
    c. Both
    d. Ester
    Answer: a
  85. Hydrogenation of alkene is:
    a. Exothermic
    b. Endothermic
    c. Both
    d. None
    Answer: a
  86. Considering Lucas test the correct reactivity order of alcohols:
    a. 1° > 2° > 3°
    b. 1° > 3° > 2°
    c. 3° > 2° > 1°
    d. None
    Answer: c
  87. Which one is the most reactive?
    a. CH₂O
    b. CH₃COCH₃
    c. CH₃CHO
    d. CH₃COC₂H₅
    Answer: a
  88. Fehling test is not given by:
    a. Benz aldehyde
    b. Formaldehyde
    c. Acetaldehyde
    d. Formic acid
    Answer: a
  89. Silver mirror test is given by:
    a. Formic acid
    b. Benzaldehyde
    Answer: a
  90. For vacuum the relative permittivity will be:
    a. Equal to one
    b. Less than one
    c. Greater than one
    d. None
    e. no unit
    Answer: a
  91. PIV stands for:
    a) Positive Inverse Voltage
    b) Power Integrated Voltage
    c) Peak Inverse Voltage
    d) Peak Integrated Voltage
    Answer: c
  92. Which photon carries the most energy?
    a) Blue
    b) Violet
    c) Red
    d) Green
    Answer: b
  93. The maximum energy of the electrons released in photocell is independent of:
    a) Frequency of incident light
    b) Intensity of incident light
    c) Nature of cathode surface
    d) Wavelength of light
    Answer: b
  94. In Einstein’s universe what is the fourth dimension:
    a) Distance
    b) Speed
    c) Time
    d) Energy
    Answer: c
  95. Two light photons are moving in opposite direction. Their relative speed is:
    a) 2c
    b) c
    c) c/2
    d) 0
    Answer: a
  96. The cyclotron frequency f charged particles is ordinarily independent of:
    a) Magnetic field
    b) Charge
    c) Mass
    d) Speed
    Answer: b
  97. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly absorbing surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is:
    a) E/c
    b) 2E/c
    c) Ec
    d) EC
    Answer: b
  98. Fusion reaction cause which of the following on surface of sun?
    a) Proton
    b) Helium
    c) Neutron
    d) None
    Answer: b
  99. The photoelectric effect shows:
    a) wave nature of light
    b) wave nature of particle
    c) particle nature of light
    d) none
    Answer: c
  100. In Full wave rectifier ___ used
    a) 2 diodes
    b) 1 diode
    c) 3 diode
    d) all
    Answer: a
  101. A N-type semiconductor is
    a. Negatively charged
    b. Positively charged
    Answer: a
  102. In a semi-conductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band And conduction band in case of silicon is
    a. 1.09MeV
    b. 0.7MeV
    c. 1.1eV
    d. 0.3 eV
    Answer: c
  103. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are
    a. Electrons
    b. Protons
    c. Holes
    d. Neutrons
    Answer: c
  104. A P-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding
    a. Arsenic to pure silicon
    b. Gallium to pure silicon
    c. Antimony to pure germanium
    d. Phosphorus to pure germanium
    Answer: b
  105. Diode acts as a
    a. rectifier
    b. amplifier
    c. inverter
    d. oscillator
    Answer: a
  106. Nuclear size up
    a. angstrom
    b. Fermi
    c. micron
    d. radian
    Answer: b
  107. The quantity analogy to potential difference is:
    a. Mass
    b. Energy
    c. Inertia
    d. Pressure
    Answer: b
  108. Unit of decay constant?
    a. s⁻¹
    b. m
    c. K
    d. no unit
    Answer: a
  109. The energy comes from sun is mainly ___ energy.
    a. Fission
    b. Fusion
    c. Chemical
    d. None
    Answer: b
  110. If X represent the number of initial nuclei, then the nuclei decayed after 2 half lives is:
    a. X
    b. X/2
    c. X/4
    d. 3X/4
    Answer: c
  111. The angular momentum of hydrogen electron is 5h/π, this electron exists in which orbit.
    a. 10th
    b. 5th
    c. 2nd
    d. None
    Answer: b
  112. The ratio of radii of electron in hydrogen atom in 2nd and 3rd orbit respectively is?
    a. 2/3
    b. 4/9
    c. 9/4
    d. none
    Answer: b
  113. The speed of a moving neutron become double, the De-Broglie wavelength will become?
    a. Double
    b. Half
    Answer: b
  114. For vacuum the relative permittivity will be:
    a. Equal to one
    b. Less than one
    c. Greater than one
    d. None
    e. no unit
    Answer: a
  115. PIV stands for:
    a) Positive Inverse Voltage
    b) Power Integrated Voltage
    c) Peak Inverse Voltage
    d) Peak Integrated Voltage
    Answer: c
  116. Which photon carries the most energy?
    a) Blue
    b) Violet
    c) Red
    d) Green
    Answer: b
  117. The maximum energy of the electrons released in photocell is independent of:
    a) Frequency of incident light
    b) Intensity of incident light
    c) Nature of cathode surface
    d) Wavelength of light
    Answer: b
  118. In Einstein’s universe what is the fourth dimension:
    a) Distance
    b) Speed
    c) Time
    d) Energy
    Answer: c
  119. Two light photons are moving in opposite direction. Their relative speed is:
    a) 2c
    b) c
    c) c/2
    d) 0
    Answer: a
  120. The cyclotron frequency f charged particles is ordinarily independent of:
    a) Magnetic field
    b) Charge
    c) Mass
    d) Speed
    Answer: b
  121. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly absorbing surface. The momentum transferred to the surface is:
    a) E/c
    b) 2E/c
    c) Ec
    d) EC
    Answer: b
  122. Fusion reaction cause which of the following on surface of sun?
    a) Proton
    b) Helium
    c) Neutron
    d) None
    Answer: b
  123. The photoelectric effect shows:
    a) wave nature of light
    b) wave nature of particle
    c) particle nature of light
    d) none
    Answer: c
  124. In Full wave rectifier ___ used
    a) 2 diodes
    b) 1 diode
    c) 3 diode
    d) all
    Answer: a
  125. A N-type semiconductor is
    a. Negatively charged
    b. Positively charged
    Answer: a
  126. In a semi-conductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band And conduction band in case of silicon is
    a. 1.09MeV
    b. 0.7MeV
    c. 1.1eV
    d. 0.3 eV
    Answer: c
  127. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are
    a. Electrons
    b. Protons
    c. Holes
    d. Neutrons
    Answer: c
  128. A P-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding
    a. Arsenic to pure silicon
    b. Gallium to pure silicon
    c. Antimony to pure germanium
    d. Phosphorus to pure germanium
    Answer: b
  129. Diode acts as a
    a. rectifier
    b. amplifier
    c. inverter
    d. oscillator
    Answer: a
  130. Nuclear size up
    a. angstrom
    b. Fermi
    c. micron
    d. radian
    Answer: b
  131. The quantity analogy to potential difference is:
    a. Mass
    b. Energy
    c. Inertia
    d. Pressure
    Answer: b
  132. Unit of decay constant?
    a. s⁻¹
    b. m
    c. K
    d. no unit
    Answer: a
  133. The energy comes from sun is mainly ___ energy.
    a. Fission
    b. Fusion
    c. Chemical
    d. None
    Answer: b
  134. If X represent the number of initial nuclei, then the nuclei decayed after 2 half lives is:
    a. X
    b. X/2
    c. X/4
    d. 3X/4
    Answer: c
  135. The angular momentum of hydrogen electron is 5h/π, this electron exists in which orbit.
    a. 10th
    b. 5th
    c. 2nd
    d. None
    Answer: b
  136. The ratio of radii of electron in hydrogen atom in 2nd and 3rd orbit respectively is?
    a. 2/3
    b. 4/9
    c. 9/4
    d. none
    Answer: b
  137. The speed of a moving neutron become double, the De-Broglie wavelength will become?
    a. Double
    b. Half
    Answer: b
  138. He used to regale us with anecdotes. The underlined word means:
    a) flatter
    b) bore
    c) tire
    d) entertain
    e) none of these
    Answer: d
  139. The ‘A’ state government has chalked out a plan for the underdeveloped ‘B’ district where 66% of the funds will be placed in the hands of a committee of local representatives. Courses of action:
    I. The ‘A’ state government should decide guidelines and norms for the functioning of the committee.
    II. Other state government may follow similar plan if directed by the Central government.
    a. If only I follows
    b. If only II follows
    c. If either I or II follows
    d. If neither I nor II follows
    e. If both I and II follow
    Answer: a
  140. Kevin, Joseph, and Nicholas are 3 brothers. If the following statements are all true, which of them is the youngest?
    ✓ Kevin is the oldest.
    ✓ Nicholas is not the oldest.
    ✓ Joseph is not the youngest.
    a. Joseph
    b. Kevin
    c. Nicholas
    d. Both Joseph and Nicholas
    Answer: c
  141. Statements: The university officers have decided to conduct last examination every year in March/April in order to announce the result at proper time. In the past, the result was declared late by the University due to the lack of number of examiners.
    a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
    b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
    c. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
    d. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
    e. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
    Answer: b
  142. Statements: No women teacher can play. Some women teachers are athletes.
    Conclusions: Male athletes can play. Some athletes can play.
    a. Only conclusion I follows
    b. Only conclusion II follows
    c. Either I or II follows
    d. Neither I nor II follows
    e. Both I and II follow
    Answer: b
  143. A bouquet of yellow roses fragrance to the room.
    a) lend
    b) lends
    c) had not faced
    d) didn’t face
    Answer: b
  144. Eating and drinking ___ in the hospital.
    a) is not allowed
    b) are not allowed
    c) didn’t allow
    d) don’t allow
    Answer: a
  145. Excitement as well as nervousness ___ the cause of her shaking.
    a) are
    b) has
    c) is
    d) have
    Answer: c
  146. Five years ___ the maximum sentence for that offence.
    a) is
    b) has
    c) are
    d) have
    Answer: a
  147. Breaking and entering ___ against the law.
    a) is
    b) has
    c) have
    d) are
    Answer: a
  148. Our “thanks” ___ to the workers who supported the union.
    a) goes
    b) going
    c) gone
    d) go
    Answer: a
  149. More than one student ___ tried this.
    a) has
    b) have
    c) are
    d) having
    e) is
    Answer: a
  150. It was the speaker, not his ideas, that ___ provoked the students to riot.
    a) have
    b) has
    c) has been
    d) have been
    Answer: b
  151. Yesterday, the chef ___ a delicious pizza.
    a) makes
    b) is making
    c) was making
    d) made
    Answer: d
  152. He is at work. He ___ overalls at the moment.
    a) wears
    b) is wearing
    c) wore
    d) was wearing
    e) is going to wear
    Answer: b
  153. I always ___ a helmet when I go cycling.
    a) wear
    b) am wearing
    c) was wearing
    d) am going to wear
    e) wore
    Answer: a
  154. Sidra ___ to music at quarter past ten last night.
    a) listened
    b) was listening
    c) listens
    d) is listening
    e) is listening
    Answer: b
  155. There are times when you must decide and take the bull by the horns. The italicized words most probably mean:
    a) make the right decision
    b) make a bold decision
    c) make the wrong decision
    d) make the bold decision
    Answer: b
  156. I would get frightened if somebody ___ a gun at me.
    a) pointed
    b) will point
    c) would have pointed
    d) would point
    Answer: a
  157. This flat would be alright if the people above us ___ not so noisy.
    a) are
    b) would be
    c) were
    d) will be
    Answer: c
  158. If you ___ my advice, you will not bear a loss.
    a) will follow
    b) followed
    c) follow
    d) had followed
    Answer: c
  159. Would Tim mind if I ___ his car without asking him?
    a) had borrowed
    b) will borrow
    c) borrowed
    d) would borrow
    Answer: c
  160. Your sister ___ if you don’t stop yelling at her.
    a) won’t be nice
    b) wouldn’t be
    c) had be
    d) shall be
    Answer: a
  161. If the student had got enough sleep, she ___ difficulties in reading the material.
    a) will not have faced
    b) would not have faced
    Answer: b

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